Archive for December 2016

When a change leader tries to deal with resistance by trying to covertly influence others, offering only selective information and/or structuring events in favor of the desired change, this is an example of __________.

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When a change leader tries to deal with resistance by trying to covertly influence others, offering only selective information and/or structuring events in favor of the desired change, this is an example of __________.



(a) rational persuasion
(b) manipulation and cooptation
(c) negotiation
(d) facilitation









Answer: B

_____ change results in a major change of direction for an organization, whereas __________ change makes small adjustments to current ways of doing things.

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_____ change results in a major change of direction for an organization, whereas __________ change makes small adjustments to current ways of doing things.



(a) Frame breaking; radical
(b) Frame bending; incremental
(c) Transformational; frame breaking
(d) Transformational; incremental








Answer: B

The basic purpose of a starting a skunkworks is to __________.

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The basic purpose of a starting a skunkworks is to __________.




(a) add more bureaucratic structure to the innovation process
(b) provide special space for people to work together and achieve innovation
(c) make sure that any innovation occurs according to preset plans
(d) give people free time in their jobs to be personally creative









Answer: B

If a student in one of your course groups volunteers to gather information for a case analysis and the other members tell him to go ahead and choose the information sources he believes are most important, the group is giving this student _________ to fulfill the agreed-upon task.

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If a student in one of your course groups volunteers to gather information for a case analysis and the other members tell him to go ahead and choose the information sources he believes are most important, the group is giving this student _________ to fulfill the agreed-upon task.




(a) responsibility
(b) accountability
(c) authority
(d) values








Answer: C

A manufacturing business with a functional structure has recently acquired two other businesses with very different product lines. The president of the combined company might consider using a _________ structure to allow a better focus on the unique needs of each product area.

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A manufacturing business with a functional structure has recently acquired two other businesses with very different product lines. The president of the combined company might consider using a _________ structure to allow a better focus on the unique needs of each product area.





(a) virtual
(b) team
(c) divisional
(d) network









Answer: C

An organization chart is most useful for _________.

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An organization chart is most useful for _________.





(a) mapping informal structures
(b) eliminating functional chimneys
(c) showing designated supervisory relationships
(d) describing the shadow organization








Answer: C

In addition to focusing on strategy implementation and strategic control, the responsibility for strategic leadership of an organization involves success with _______________.

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In addition to focusing on strategy implementation and strategic control, the responsibility for strategic leadership of an organization involves success with _______________.



(a) motivating a disposable workforce
(b) the process of continuous change
(c) Chapter 11 bankruptcy
(d) growth by liquidation








Answer: B

The two questions Porter asks to identify the correct competitive strategy for a business or product line are: 1—What is the market scope? 2—What is the __________?

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The two questions Porter asks to identify the correct competitive strategy for a business or product line are: 1—What is the market scope? 2—What is the __________?






(a) market share
(b) source of competitive advantage
(c) core competency
(d) industry attractiveness






Answer: B

Among the global strategies that international businesses might pursue, the _________strategy most directly tries to customize products to fit local needs and cultures in different countries.

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Among the global strategies that international businesses might pursue, the _________strategy most directly tries to customize products to fit local needs and cultures in different countries.





(a) concentration
(b) globalization
(c) transnational
(d) multidomestic






Answer: D

General Electric is a complex conglomerate that owns many firms operating in very diff erent industries. The strategies pursued for each individual firm within GE umbrella would best be called __________level strategies.

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General Electric is a complex conglomerate that owns many firms operating in very diff erent industries. The strategies pursued for each individual firm within GE umbrella would best be called __________level strategies.





(a) corporate
(b) business
(c) functional
(d) transnational






Answer: B

Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome?

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Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome? 





A) size of the viral capsomeres
B) RNA versus DNA genome
C) double- versus single-strand genomes
D) size and shape of the capsid
E) glycoproteins of the envelope





Answer: D

Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?

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Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?





A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.
B) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.
C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk."
D) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes.
E) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age.






Answer: B

Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?

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Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true? 





A) Most of the DNA codes for protein.
B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.







Answer: E

Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene

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Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene





A) is transcribed in the early embryo.
B) normally leads to formation of tail structures.
C) normally leads to formation of head structures.
D) is a protein present in all head structures.
E) leads to programmed cell death.






Answer: C

What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?

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What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator? 





A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter
B) reduced transcription of the operon's genes
C) buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon
D) continuous transcription of the operon's genes
E) overproduction of catabolite activator protein (CAP)







Answer: D

Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?

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Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression? 





A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D) gene amplification contributing to cancer
E) the folding of DNA to form heterochromatin





Answer: C

Cell differentiation always involves

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Cell differentiation always involves 







A) the production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin.
B) the movement of cells.
C) the transcription of the myoD gene.
D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome.
E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat.







Answer: A

The functioning of enhancers is an example of

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The functioning of enhancers is an example of 






A) transcriptional control of gene expression.
B) a post-transcriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA.
C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors.
D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins.
E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning.






Answer: A

If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then

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If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then 





A) the amino acid inactivates the repressor.
B) the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes.
C) the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid.
D) the amino acid acts as a corepressor.
E) the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon.





Answer: D

Epstein Bar Virus (EBV) causes most of us to have an episode of sore throat and swollen glands during early childhood. If we first become exposed to the virus during our teen years, however, EBV causes the syndrome we know as mononucleosis. However, in special circumstances, the same virus can be carcinogenic.

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Epstein Bar Virus (EBV) causes most of us to have an episode of sore throat and swollen glands during early childhood. If we first become exposed to the virus during our teen years, however, EBV causes the syndrome we know as mononucleosis. However, in special circumstances, the same virus can be carcinogenic. 



In areas of the world in which malaria is endemic, notably in sub-Saharan Africa, EBV can cause Burkitt's lymphoma in children, which is usually associated with large tumors of the jaw. Which of the following is consistent with these findings? 

A) EBV infection makes the malarial parasite able to produce lymphoma.
B) Malaria's strain on the immune system makes EBV infection worse.
C) Malaria occurs more frequently in those infected with EBV.
D) Malarial response of the immune system prevents an individual from making EBV antibodies.
E) A cell infected with the malarial parasite is more resistant to the virus.


Answer: D


In a different part of the world, namely in parts of southeast Asia, the same virus is associated with a different kind of cancer of the throat. Which of the following is most probable? 

A) Viral infection is correlated with a different immunological reaction.
B) The virus infects the people via different routes.
C) The virus only infects the elderly.
D) The virus mutates more frequently in the Asian population.
E) Malaria is also found in this region.


Answer: A


A very rare human allele of a gene called XLP, or X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome, causes a small number of people from many different parts of the world to get cancer following even childhood exposure to EBV. Given the previous information, what might be going on? 

A) The people must have previously had malaria.
B) Their ancestors must be from sub-Saharan Africa or southeast Asia.
C) They must be unable to mount an immune response to EBV.
D) They must have severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
E) Their whole immune system must be overreplicating.


Answer: C


What must characterize the XLP population? 

A) They must have severe immunological problems starting at birth.
B) They must all be males with affected male relatives.
C) They must all be males with affected female relatives.
D) They must all inherit this syndrome from their fathers.
E) They must live in sub-Saharan Africa.


Answer: C

A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye.

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A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. 



Two children are born from the same parents. Child one inherits a predisposition to retinoblastoma (one of the mutations) and child two does not. However, both children develop the retinoblastoma. Which of the following would you expect? 

A) an earlier age of onset in child one
B) a history of exposure to mutagens in child one but not in child two
C) a more severe cancer in child one
D) increased levels of apoptosis in both children
E) decreased levels of DNA repair in child one


Answer: A


In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to make a cell a cancer cell, supporting Knudsen's hypothesis. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? 

A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon
B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle
C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation
D) the same genes that Knudsen identified as associated with retinoblastoma
E) the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colon


Answer: B


Knudsen and colleagues also noted that persons with hereditary retinoblastoma that had been treated successfully lived on but then had a higher frequency of developing osteosarcomas (bone cancers) later in life. This provided further evidence of their theory because 

A) osteosarcoma cells express the same genes as retinal cells.
B) p53 gene mutations are common to both tumors.
C) both kinds of cancer involve overproliferation of cells.
D) one of the mutations involved in retinoblastoma is also one of the changes involved in osteosarcoma.
E) retinoblastoma is a prerequisite for the formation of osteosarcoma later in life.


Answer: D


One of the human leukemias, called CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia), is associated with a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in somatic cells of bone marrow. Which of the following allows CML to provide further evidence of this multistep nature of cancer? 

A) CML usually occurs in more elderly persons (late age of onset).
B) The resulting chromosome 22 is abnormally short; it is then known as the Philadelphia chromosome.
C) The translocation requires breaks in both chromosomes 9 and 22, followed by fusion between the reciprocal pieces.
D) CML involves a proto-oncogene known as abl.
E) CML can usually be treated by chemotherapy.


Answer: C

One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers.

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One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers. 



Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? 

A) inherited cancer taking a few years to be expressed
B) embryonic or fetal cancer
C) inherited predisposition to mutation
D) inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation
E) susceptibility to chemical carcinogens


Answer: D


Given the damage caused by UV, the kind of gene affected in those with XP is one whose product is involved with 

A) mending of double-strand breaks in the DNA backbone.
B) breakage of cross-strand covalent bonds.
C) the ability to excise single-strand damage and replace it.
D) the removal of double-strand damaged areas.
E) causing affected skin cells to undergo apoptosis.


Answer: C

A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method.

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A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method. 


The researcher in question measures the amount of new polypeptide production in embryos from 2—8 hours following fertilization and the results show a steady and significant rise in polypeptide concentration over that time. The researcher concludes that 



A) his measurement skills must be faulty.
B) the results are due to building new cell membranes to compartmentalize dividing nuclei.
C) the resulting new polypeptides are due to translation of maternal mRNAs.
D) the new polypeptides were inactive and not measurable until fertilization.
E) polypeptides were attached to egg membranes until this time.


Answer: C


The researcher continues to study the reactions of the embryo to these new proteins and you hypothesize that he is most likely to see which of the following (while embryonic genes are still not being expressed)? 



A) The cells begin to differentiate.
B) The proteins are evenly distributed throughout the embryo.
C) Larval features begin to make their appearance.
D) Spatial axes (anterior ? posterior, etc.) begin to be determined.
E) The embryo begins to lose cells due to apoptosis from no further gene expression.


Answer: D

A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells, and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe.

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A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells, and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe. 




Within the first quarter hour, the researcher sees that the intact RNA is found in the cells. After 3 hours, she is not surprised to find that 

A) Dicer enzyme has reduced it to smaller double-stranded pieces.
B) the RNA is degraded by 5' and 3' exonucleases.
C) the double-stranded RNA replicates itself.
D) the double-stranded RNA binds to mRNAs to prevent translation.
E) the double-stranded RNA binds to tRNAs to prevent translation.


Answer: A


Some time later, she finds that the introduced strand separates into single-stranded RNAs, one of which is degraded. What does this enable the remaining strand to do? A) attach to histones in the chromatin 

B) bind to complementary regions of target mRNAs
C) bind to Dicer enzymes to destroy other RNAs
D) activate other siRNAs in the cell
E) bind to noncomplementary RNA sequences


Answer: B


In addition, she finds what other evidence of this single-stranded RNA piece's activity? 

A) She can measure the degradation rate of the remaining single strand.
B) She can measure the decrease in the concentration of Dicer.
C) The rate of accumulation of the polypeptide to be translated from the target mRNA is reduced.
D) The amount of miRNA is multiplied by its replication.
E) The cell's translation ability is entirely shut down.


Answer: C

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture.

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A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. 



In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing phosphorylation of amino acids adjacent to methylated amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? 

A) increased chromatin condensation
B) decreased chromatin condensation
C) abnormalities of mouse embryos
D) decreased binding of transcription factors
E) inactivation of the selected genes


Answer: B


In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation 

B) decreased chromatin condensation
C) abnormalities of mouse embryos
D) decreased binding of transcription factors
E) inactivation of the selected genes


Answer: A


One of her colleagues suggested she try increased methylation of C nucleotides in a mammalian system. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation 

B) decreased chromatin condensation
C) abnormalities of mouse embryos
D) decreased binding of transcription factors
E) inactivation of the selected genes



Answer: E


She tried decreasing the amount of methylation enzymes in the embryonic stem cells and then allowed the cells to further differentiate. Which of the following results would she most likely see? 

A) increased chromatin condensation
B) decreased chromatin condensation
C) abnormalities of mouse embryos
D) decreased binding of transcription factors
E) inactivation of the selected genes


Answer: C

A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all.

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A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. 



Which of the following is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line? 

A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome.
B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome.
C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell genome.
D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene.
E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation.


Answer: A


Of the lines that express the transgene, one is transcribed but not translated. Which of the following is a likely explanation? A) no promoter 

B) no AUG in any frame
C) no compatible ribosome
D) high histone acetylation
E) missing transcription factor


Answer: B

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome

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Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome 


If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? 

A) Three structural genes will no longer be expressed.
B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease.
C) The operon will no longer be inducible.
D) Beta galactosidase will be produced.
E) The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly.


Answer: D


If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? 

A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. 
B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
C) The operon will never be transcribed.
D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously.
E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced.


Answer: D


If she moves the repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which will you expect to occur? 

A) The repressor will no longer be made.
B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
C) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer.
D) The lac operon will be expressed continuously.
E) The lac operon will function normally.


Answer: E


If she moves the operator to a position upstream from the promoter, what would occur? 

A) The lac operon will function normally. 
B) The lac operon will be expressed continuously.
C) The repressor will not be able to bind to the operator.
D) The repressor will bind to the promoter.
E) The repressor will no longer be made.


Answer: B

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because

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BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because 






A) they prevent infection by retroviruses that cause cancer.
B) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage.
C) the mutant forms of either one of these promote breast cancer.
D) the normal genes make estrogen receptors.
E) they block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens.







Answer: B

Tumor-suppressor genes

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Tumor-suppressor genes 






A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells.
B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses.
C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion.
D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.
E) do all of the above.








Answer: C

Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?

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Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? 





A) It is an activator for other genes.
B) It speeds up the cell cycle.
C) It causes cell death via apoptosis.
D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage.
E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.






Answer: A

Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes?

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Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? 






A) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth.
B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses.
C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances.
D) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth.
E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells.






Answer: D

What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in common?

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What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in common? 






A) Their products act as transcription factors.
B) They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila.
C) Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization.
D) They act independently of other positional information.
E) They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly's life.







Answer: A

The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur?

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The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur?






A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size.
B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs.
C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die.
D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo.
E) The embryo would develop normally.






Answer: D

If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene,

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If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene, 




A) she will not develop past the early embryonic stage.
B) all of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype.
C) only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype.
D) her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation.
E) only her female offspring will show the mutant phenotype.





Answer: B

Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development?

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Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development? 





A) morphogenesis
B) determination
C) induction
D) differentiation
E) pattern formation





Answer: E

Embryonic lethal mutations result in

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Embryonic lethal mutations result in 




A) phenotypes that prevent fertilization.
B) failure to express maternal effect genes.
C) death during pupation.
D) phenotypes that are never born/hatched.
E) homeotic phenotype changes.





Answer: D


What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo?

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What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo? 





A) cell division occurring after fertilization
B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins
C) determination of specific cells for certain functions
D) changes in the size and shape of the cell
E) changes resulting from induction





Answer: B

In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that

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In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that 





A) embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent.
B) embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent.
C) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells.
D) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells.
E) embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.






Answer: A

The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that

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The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that 






A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote.
B) genes are lost during differentiation.
C) the differentiated state is normally very unstable.
D) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA.
E) differentiation does not occur in plants.





Answer: A

In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to

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In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to 





A) nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development.
B) identical genes that generate many copies of the ribosomes needed for fetal globin production.
C) pseudogenes, which interfere with gene expression in adults.
D) the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth, which changes the type of hemoglobin produced.
E) histone proteins changing shape during embryonic development.







Answer: A

You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer?

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You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer? 





A) You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins.
B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same.
C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene.
D) An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life.
E) You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation.





Answer: B

Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained?

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Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained? 





A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions.
B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA.
C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced.
D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently.
E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible.





Answer: E

In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

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In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur? 





A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells.
B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I.
C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture.
D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination.
E) The DNA of the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate.





Answer: C

Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer?

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Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? 





A) It degrades single-stranded DNA.
B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA.
C) It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail.
D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation.
E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.






Answer: D

One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs?

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One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? 






A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes
B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design
E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans






Answer: C

Which of the following best describes siRNA?

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Which of the following best describes siRNA? 





A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA
B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns
C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor
D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits
E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences







Answer: A

At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest?

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At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest? 





A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose
B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences
C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed
D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function
E) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs without biological function





Answer: D

In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones of gametes. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis?

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In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones of gametes. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? 





A) These oocytes have no histones.
B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility.
C) All proteins in the cell must be phosphorylated.
D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation.
E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.





Answer: D
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